I tend to believe that the urbanization pre-900 was for military rather then capital creation reasons
Military being a subsection of "legal," which is exactly why I said Medieval urbanization happened, I will just assume you disagreed with me for the !@#$s and giggles.
But in all seriousness, capital pooling is very important for urbanization but, as you noted, medieval capital is not necessarily as urban as modern capital is. And labor pooling is the real reason for industrial cities, and labor pooling on a large scale is foolish in most pre-Modern contexts (though not in all: slave cities come to mind).
Medieval cities would be a function of arable land in an area compared to confluences of travel and trade routes in relation to political/legal boundaries that make urbanized social norms possible.
"Villagization" and "castle towns" are very much a "military" phenomenon; Townslands in BM context. But
cities are not simply people clustering for protection.
Hello, I've made your table not suck. Feel free to use this in the original post.
Why thank you. Will do.
